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Earning the CAMS Certification can help to redefine your compliance career and make you more valuable to employers.
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Certified Associate in Project Management | CAPM – PMI
MI’s Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) is an entry-level certification for project practitioners, designed for those with less experience.
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ISACA CISM Certified Professionals Advance Their Careers & Receive Higher Salaries!
ISACA’s Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification indicates expertise in information security governance, program development and management, incident management and risk management. Take your career out of the technical realm to management!
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CISSP – Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is an independent information security certification granted by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium, also known as (ISC)².
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Certified Supply Chain Professional (CSCP)
The CSCP program helps you demonstrate your knowledge and organizational skills for developing more streamlined operations.
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NACVA’s globally recognized Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA) designation is the most widely recognized business valuation credential and the only business valuation credential accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies® (NCCA®) and the American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
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Latest Cams exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
What are some of the shortcomings in using letters regulatory? Choose 3 answers
A. They can be time-consuming
B. They are based on a pre-existing mutual treaty between the countries
C. They are usually restricted to obtainingevidence that can be used for prosecution and other judicial proceedings
D. They must be approved in advance by the countries judicial authorities
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
What kind of person should perform the independent testing of an institution\\’s anti-money laundering program?
A. A certified specialist in the anti-money laundering field
B. A former anti-money laundering officer from a similar institution
C. A person who reports directly to the Board of Directors or a Board Committee
D. A retired government regulator or federal law enforcement officer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
During a law enforcement investigative interview regarding potential money laundering, the suspect starts making
assertions and statements that the investigator believes are false.
How should the investigator respond?
A. Inform the suspect that deception is obvious and continue the interview
B. Advise the suspect that the interview will be terminated if there is suspicion of deception
C. Direct the interview in another direction until there is better rapport before returning back to the troubling questions
D. Ask questions of a material nature about the suspected false statements without revealing the suspected deception
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, Designated Non-Financial Businesses and
Professionals include which entities?
A. Commodities traders
B. Money services businesses
C. Hawala operators
D. Real estate agents
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What should an effective anti-money laundering training program include?
A. Computer-based modules titles differently for each job description in the bank
B. Random testing of employees to ensure proper understanding ofpolicies
C. Real-life money laundering examples
D. Lists of anti-money laundering regulations
Correct Answer: C
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Latest Capm exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the
project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?
A. It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope
B. It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project
C. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated
D. It provides the needs of a stakeholders or stakeholder group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the
plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
Correct Answer: D
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Latest Cism exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
An information security manager is recommending an investment in a new security initiative to address recently
published threats. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the business case?
A. Business impact if threats materialize
B. Availability of unused funds in the security budget
C. Threat information from reputable sources
D. Alignment of the new initiative with the approved business strategy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Effective IT governance is BEST ensured by:
A. utilizing a bottom-up approach.
B. management by the IT department.
C. referring the matter to the organization\\’s legal department.
D. utilizing a top-down approach.
Correct Answer: D
Effective IT governance needs to be a top-down initiative, with the board and executive management setting clear
policies, goals and objectives and providing for ongoing monitoring of the same. Focus on the regulatory issues and
management priorities may not be reflected effectively by a bottom-up approach. IT governance affects the entire
organization and is not a matter concerning only the management of IT. The legal department is part of the overall
governance process, but cannot take full responsibility.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following activities should take place FIRST when a security patch for Internet software is received from a
vendor?
A. The patch should be validated a hash algorithm.
B. The patch should be applied to critical systems.
C. The patch should be deployed quickly to systems that are vulnerable.
D. The patch should be evaluated in a testing environment.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the MOST effective solution for preventing individuals external to the organization from
modifying sensitive information on a corporate database?
A. Screened subnets
B. Information classification policies and procedures
C. Role-based access controls
D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Correct Answer: A
Screened subnets are demilitarized zones (DMZs) and are oriented toward preventing attacks on an internal network by
external users. The policies and procedures to classify information will ultimately result in better protection but they will
not prevent actual modification. Role-based access controls would help ensure that users only had access to files and
systems appropriate for their job role. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are useful to detect invalid attempts but they will
not prevent attempts.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following should be the MOST important criteria when defining data retention policies?
A. Capacity requirements
B. Audit findings
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Industry best practices
Correct Answer: C
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Latest Cissp exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
What principle focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together to perform a task? It is
sometimes referred to as “what each must bring” and joined together when getting access or decrypting a file. Each of
which does not reveal the other?
A. Dual control
B. Separation of duties
C. Split knowledge
D. Need to know
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Split knowledge involves encryption keys being separated into two components, each of which does not
reveal the other. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
In cryptographic terms, one could say dual control and split knowledge are properly implemented if no one person has
access to or knowledge of the content of the complete cryptographic key being protected by the two rocesses.
The sound implementation of dual control and split knowledge in a cryptographic environment necessarily means that
the quickest way to break the key would be through the best attack known for the algorithm of that key. The principles
of
dual control and split knowledge primarily apply to access to plaintext keys. Access to cryptographic keys used for
encrypting and decrypting data or access to keys that are encrypted under a master key (which may or may not be
maintained under dual control and split knowledge) do not require dual control and split knowledge. Dual control and
split knowledge can be summed up as the determination of any part of a key being protected must require the collusion
between two or more persons with each supplying unique cryptographic materials that must be joined together to
access the protected key.
Any feasible method to violate the axiom means that the principles of dual control and split knowledge are not being
upheld.
Split knowledge is the unique “what each must bring” and joined together when implementing dual control. To illustrate,
a box containing petty cash is secured by one combination lock and one keyed lock. One employee is given the
combination to the combo lock and another employee has possession of the correct key to the keyed lock.
In order to get the cash out of the box both employees must be present at the cash box at the same time. One cannot
open the box without the other. This is the aspect of dual control.
On the other hand, split knowledge is exemplified here by the different objects (the combination to the combo lock and
the correct physical key), both of which are unique and necessary, that each brings to the meeting. Split knowledge
focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together.
Dual control has to do with forcing the collusion of at least two or more persons to combine their split knowledge to gain
access to an asset. Both split knowledge and dual control complement each other and are necessary functions that
implement the segregation of duties in high integrity cryptographic environments.
The following are incorrect answers:
Dual control is a procedure that uses two or more entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect a system
resource, such that no single entity acting alone can access that resource. Dual control is implemented as a security
procedure that requires two or more persons to come together and collude to complete a process. In a cryptographic
system the two (or more) persons would each supply a unique key, that when taken together, performs a cryptographic
process. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
Separation of duties – The practice of dividing the steps in a system function among different individuals, so as to keep a
single individual from subverting the process.
The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific
information required to perform official tasks or services.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1621-1635). . Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1643-1650). . Kindle Edition.
and
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , page 126
QUESTION 2
The hashing algorithm in the Digital Signature Standard (DSS) generates a message digest of:
A. 130 bit
B. 56 bits
C. 120 bits
D. 160 bits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What process is used to accomplish high-speed data transfer between a peripheral device and computer memory,
bypassing the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
A. Direct memory access
B. Interrupt processing
C. Transfer under program control
D. Direct access control
Correct Answer: A
With DMA, a DMAcontroller essentially takes control of the memory busses and manages the data transfer directly.
Answer interrupt processing involves an external signal interrupting the normal CPU program flow. This interrupt causes
the CPU to halt processing and jump to another program that services the interrupt. When the interrupt has been
serviced, the CPU returns to continue executing the original program. Program control transfer, answer c, is
accomplished by the processor executing input/output (I/O) instructions. Answer Direct access control is a distracter.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well
as assignment of ownership responsibilities?
A. Security governance
B. Risk management
C. Security portfolio management
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?
A. trusted front-end.
B. trusted back-end.
C. controller.
D. kernel.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If you are “retrofitting” that means you are adding to an existing database management system (DBMS).
You could go back and redesign the entire DBMS but the cost of that could be expensive and there is no telling what
the
effect will be on existing applications, but that is redesigning and the question states retrofitting. The most cost effective
way with the least effect on existing applications while adding a layer of security on top is through a trusted front-end.
Clark-Wilson is a synonym of that model as well. It was used to add more granular control or control to database that did
not provide appropriate controls or no controls at all. It is one of the most popular model today. Any dynamic website with a back-end database is an example of this today.
Such a model would also introduce separation of duties by allowing the subject only specific rights on the objects they
need to access.
The following answers are incorrect:
trusted back-end. Is incorrect because a trusted back-end would be the database management system (DBMS). Since
the question stated “retrofitting” that eliminates this answer.
controller. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. kernel. Is incorrect because
this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. A security kernel would provide protection to devices and
processes but would be inefficient in protecting rows or columns in a table.
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Latest Cscp exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
JIT uses what method to move items through the system?
A. push
B. pull
C. backward scheduling
D. forward scheduling
E. available to promise
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A remanufacturer of equipment is most likely to have what type of supply chain?
A. Modular logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Mixed model
D. Lateral
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following planning systems examine both independent and dependent demand items:
A. DRP
II. MPS
III. MRP
B. I
C. II C. III
D. I and II
E. II and III
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A company that is having difficulties prioritizing resources against a long list of improvement projects should use which
of the following processes?
A. Control chart
B. Competitive benchmarking
C. Pareto analysis
D. Six Sigma
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT:
A. human resources
B. organizational design
C. information technology
D. financial performance
E. organizational measurement
Correct Answer: D
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Latest Cva exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
There is an additional ____________ valuation rule, which requires that the appraiser determine whether any of the
extraordinary payment rights, if exercised in conjunction with any qualified distribution rights, would lower the total value
of the preferred security.
A. Lower of
B. Separate Command
C. Mandatory redemption rights
D. Lower in
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
The capital asset pricing model is part of a larger body of economic theory known as capital market theory. Capital
market theory also includes:
A. Security analysis
B. Portfolio management theory
C. A normative theory
D. Systematic theory
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
The sales comparison approach is based on the economic principles of:
A. Efficient markets
B. Special financing and other terms regarding each sales transactions
C. Age of each property
D. Supply and demand
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
There is a general consensus among appraisers that there is little or no difference in controlling interest market values
between S corporations and C corporations under most circumstances, and that any difference depends on:
A. Finding a seller that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
B. Finding a buyer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
C. Finding a dealer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
D. Finding a broker that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
The rate of interest that, when applied to the expected future payments equal to the debt security\\’s observed market
price is called the:
A. Yield to maturity
B. Return on investment
C. Market interest
D. Interest earning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
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